Let the stance x be: Only the Bible is the full, complete special revelation from God.
My stance is that the Bible is helpful, "verified" revelation from God and should be treated as such. This is against more common stances such as x. The main dispute is with the word "only".
Much of the dispute is actually with the canon of the new testament. I think the main facts is that it was canonised 300+ years after the death of Jesus by a council of Christian leaders (after Constantine made Christianity the religion of the roman empire). It wasn't that these people (somewhat arbitrarily) picked and chose books, they had certain criteria which included consistency with rest of scripture, claimed authorship, traditional acceptance amongst churches up until then. Of course there were some disputes over certain more contentious books, some of which made the canon and some of which didn't.
The first thing is that the Bible does not say anywhere in the Bible that it is to contain such and such writings of who and who. If it were, it would be self-choosing (as it were) and alongside self-authenticating, make it a very formidable force, (in a circular way). The Bible, (supposedly) divinely inspired works, were put together by men 300+ years later. Even if one grants apostolic authority, it seems a stretch to grant that these men 300 years later were, as it were, perfectly divinely inspired.
Since these people are not divinely inspired in the way scripture writers were, the sovereignty of God has been commonly appealed to as "insuring" the rightness of scripture. But as it were, God is sovereign over everything, there is no insurance that God would have protected, in particular, that all special revelation would be within the canon. After all, God sovereignly allowed the church to conduct crusades, meddle in politics selfishly in order to keep political control and did other kind of stuff that we now agree as "wrong".
It is perhaps more plausible that God would have acted sovereignly, given wisdom and his spirit to these people to not include what ought not be included. After all, there are letters of Paul, referenced in the Bible, that are not included in the canon and presumably lost by the time the canon was created since books thought to be written by Paul were considered canonical (probably due to the verse in 2 Peter about Paul's letters being authoritative). What ought not be included can also sort of be tested against the other criteria of consistency with rest of scripture. If they were deviant and ought not be included, it seems likely that it would fail the criterion of consistency. Furthermore, along the lines of some King James proponent argument, it seems sensible that God would preserve some truth for the people whom he loved rather than have them misled the entire time.
Furthermore, the Bible does not claim a closed canon (The verse in Revelations seems to only refer to itself. If you want to argue that God foreknew the canon would happen in that order and inspired John to write in in a way that does not seem to suggest the whole Bible but actually does actually mean the whole Bible then,,, I don't have much to say but such an interpretation seems bound to run into other problems elsewhere). Why then, is the Bible, if it is the only authoritative word of God, a closed canon? Here I can provide a sort of reductio ad absurdum argument.
1. Bible is the only authoritative word of God
2. Bible does not claim it is a closed canon.
3. Bible is a closed canon.
4. Bible being a closed canon is not a move authorised by the word of God. (from 1-2)(Since Bible is authoritative, anything regarding it is authoritative on lives of other people hence it requires authority from itself)
5. Bible must be an open canon. (from 4)
There is the idea that apostolic authority has ceased with the death of the apostles and hence, by logic, Bible is a closed canon. I would say... Is apostolic authority within the Bible? I mean apostolic authority in the exclusive sense, for sure apostles do have apostolic authority, but are there no more apostles and even if there are no more apostles, does no one else have that authority? What about, say, writings of timothy? How about people who know Timothy? Is 1 relation gap from the apostles sufficient to preserve apostolic authority e.g Luke. How about 2? E.g someone who studied under Titus/Timothy/Barnabas? How about a possible newly discovered writing of Bartholomew?
Is the Bible sufficient for salvation? I would say it is, but then again, I would say that the gospel, as long as it is presented truthfully is sufficient for salvation. I would think the early church, without the Bible, got salvation. Hence, Bible is not necessary, the Gospel and the working of the Holy spirit is necessary. The Bible contains the gospel and more. There would also be like, (supposedly) Thomas's disciples in India who only heard the gospel from Thomas and still believed without having access to the Bible for like a thousand years or something.
Much of the Bible's own claims about scripture e.g the oft quoted 2 timothy 3:16 seems to refer to old testament scripture. OT scripture seems to be legitimised by Jesus himself, so there is not much debate about it, if anyone was wondering. But whatever, I do think it provides a good idea of what scripture should be used for: "teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness". Note also that it does not have an exclusive claim to Scripture being the only special revelation from God.
The implication of my stance is not that we should seek new writings or sayings or revelations and ask if they are canon or authoritative. The Bible is helpful and we ought to use it, given that it is verified, we ought to use it even more to guard against heresy. This can be done through making sure that we do not accept anything that contradicts the Bible or does not fit in with the Bible.
Yet the fact that it is not the only special revelation from God makes it less legalistic and rigid. Yes, what it says is true and right (and rigidly so), but on many things on which it is unclear (e.g which countries are the countries from the north that will attack Israel, what is this Israel is it the current nation? even should there be full submersion baptism?) can be bracketed in favour of the things which it says are clear. Such as loving one another and telling other people the gospel. The Bible being not the only source of special revelation from God prevents people from reading too much into the Bible and becoming overly legalistic as it were, since we don't have to truly figure out what does "keep the sabbath holy" mean, like the pharisees making it into 101 laws. Similarly, we don't have to strain so hard to find out what does a particular obscure verse mean e.g "women's head must be covered" or "i do not permit a woman to teach a man" and instead obey the thrust behind it. This frees the Bible from being taken as overly constraining. What I am thinking of as other forms of "special revelation" would be God given wisdom, human counsel and the Holy spirit (surprisingly? all 3 are part of the canonisation process). There might be other forms too.
Why this stance? I must admit that I am writing in a specific context. I am probably reacting against the things I see. Reacting against some groups of people that seem more preoccupied with studying the Bible or Bible thumping than like living it out.
Secondarily, this seems to me to be a better defense The weight that rests on the Bible being the only word of God seems really hard to defend, to me. Given that the Bible only claims that it is the word of God and not that it is the only word of God (bleh, here I am not drawing a distinction between OT and NT and between the different books for simplicity).
Against sola scriptura??? Perhaps I shall try some Wright kind of idea that Luther and the reformers were reacting very strongly against the excesses of the catholic church. And they used scripture, as it ought, as a helpful and verified claim to the truth of revelation from God. But because that was their primary source, and because the Catholic church then had introduced other wrong sources, perhaps they swung too much to the other side of the pendulum and held too strong a claim on scripture and made it exclusive, beyond just being true they made it only true. And this only is inaccurate and has led to certain un-ideal implications such as more and more splits based on divisions over parts of the Bible that are more contentious (seems, splitting over infant baptism, for instance, something inferred really far from scripture is taken more seriously than unity of the church which is directly commanded in scripture). It seems that of the 5 Solas, 4 can be found in scripture with sola scriptura being the only one that is not.
Oh looky here: https://www.gotquestions.org/sola-scriptura.html Seems to be mostly agreeing with me but not going as far as to deny that sola scriptura is inaccurate.
I guess one final point of contention, and one that requires precision is whether scripture is final. Do I think scripture is final given that I do not think it is the sole authority? I think the main point is that God does not contradict himself, so in as far, since scripture is "verified", it can be "final" in terms of vetting other forms of revelation such as dreams. Whether it is final in the sense that nothing else is to be said, i would say no. Perhaps stuff can be said, and rightly so, being verified (or at least non-contradicted by scripture) but these things seem unable to then take on the role of scripture as verifiers for further revelation. So scripture is the final verifier, i guess.
I personally think a relationship with God and wisdom and reason (natural reason according to Aquinas) is really important in knowing God. Through scripture and perhaps, where scripture doesn't take us to.
Comments/ criticisms about this post very welcome. Pm or tagboard.